HACCP
II Practice Test – Model Paper 4
Module Paper 4
Answer all the questions
Time: 01 hour
1. What is the main
purpose of a pre-audit?
A. To prepare for the
audit
B. To identify potential
nonconformities
C. To determine the
audit scope
D. All of the above
2. The accuracy of audit
documentation is especially important in which of the following situations?
A. One of the audit team
members is aware of a possible personal bias related to the audit.
B. The documentation is
likely to be used as evidence in litigation.
C. An audit has yielded
more documentation than expected.
D. The documentation
supports an auditor’s viewpoint.
3. What is the main
difference between a first-party audit and a second-party audit?
A. A first-party audit
is conducted by a regulatory body, while a second-party audit is conducted by
an external auditor
B. A first-party audit
is conducted by an external auditor, while a second-party audit is conducted by
the organization itself
C. A first-party audit
is conducted by the organization itself, while a second-party audit is
conducted by a regulatory body
D. A first-party audit
is conducted by the organization itself, while a second-party audit is
conducted by a customer
4. What is the main
difference between an allergen and an ingredient?
A. An allergen is a
substance that can cause an allergic reaction, while an ingredient is a
substance that is used in food production
B. An allergen is a
substance that is used in food production, while an ingredient is a substance
that can cause an allergic reaction
C. An allergen is a
substance that is used in food production and can cause an allergic reaction,
while an ingredient is a substance that is used in food production but does not
cause an allergic reaction
D. An allergen is a
substance that can cause an allergic reaction and is not used in food
production, while an ingredient is a substance that is used in food production
5. An audit schedule is
an integral part of which of the following phases of the auditing process?A. a) Initiation
B. b) Preparation
C. c) Closing
D. d) Reporting
6. What is the purpose
of an audit checklist?
A. To ensure that all
relevant areas are covered during the audit
B. To provide a
consistent approach to the audit
C. To document the audit
findings
D. All of the above
7. Which of the
following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?
A. Histograms
B. Frequency
distributions
C. Pareto charts
D. Process observations
8. What is the main
difference between a nonconformity and an observation?
A. A nonconformity is a
deviation from a requirement, while an observation is a potential deviation
B. A nonconformity is a
minor deviation, while an observation is a major deviation
C. A nonconformity is a
major deviation, while an observation is a minor deviation
D. A nonconformity is a
deviation from a standard, while an observation is a deviation from a
regulation
9. Who makes the final
determination regarding the distribution of the audit report?
A. The lead auditor
B. The audit group
manager
C. The auditee
D. The client
10. The use of an
approved supplier is a common control measure to ensure the safety of raw
materials
11. The planned
observation or measurements of control parameters to confirm that a process is
under control and critical limits are not exceeded is part of verification.
12. The value of a
monitored action, which separates the acceptable from the unacceptable is
considered as a CCP.
13. food safety
management is a set of policies and practices, which ensure that the food sold
by a food business is safe-to-eat and free from contaminants.
14. the prerequisite
programs are the good hygiene practices that a food business must have in place
before implementing HACCP.
15. Actions required to
prevent or eliminate a food safety hazard or reduce it to an acceptable level
is?
A. A monitoring activity
B. A critical control point
C. A control measure
D. None of the above
16. An auditee is likely
to be most threatened by an auditor’s use of which of the following
interviewing techniques?
A. Paraphrasing an
auditee’s response while writing it down
B. Being silent while
waiting for an auditee to respond to a question
C. Underlining key facts
when recording an auditee’s response
D. Using a tape recorder
to record an auditee’s response
17. What is not
considered as a chemical hazard preventive measure?
A. Use of 1.3 mg/L chlorine
solution for treating water
B. Separate storage.
C. Strict rules when
cleaning or using pesticides.
D. Rinsing following
chemical cleaning.
18. The review of a food
safety management system may be triggered by?
A. When justified
complaint/food poisoning.
B. Significant changes
to raw materials/process/recipe.
C. Changes to packaging/distribution.
D. Above all
19. Which of the
following best describes a frequency distribution?
A. A time-ordered chart
of subgroup averages and control limits
B. A graph for
presenting data along a scale of reference and the number of times each item occurs
C. A plot of the
probability of accepting a hypothesis when it is actually false
D. A graph indicating
the difference between an actual value and its predicted value
20. Quarantining a product,
which has breached a critical limit is considered as?
A. A correction
B. A control measure
C. A corrective action
D. A monitoring action
21. What is the
difference between a hazard and a risk?
A. A hazard is the
likelihood of harm occurring, while a risk is a potential source of harm
B. A hazard is a
potential source of contamination, while a risk is the likelihood of
contamination occurring
C. A hazard is a
potential source of harm, while a risk is the likelihood of harm occurring
D. A hazard is the
likelihood of contamination occurring, while a risk is a potential source of
contamination
22. What are the main
steps in conducting a hazard analysis?
A. Identification,
evaluation, and control
B. Identification,
assessment, and prevention
C. Identification,
evaluation, and elimination
D. Identification,
assessment, and control
23. What is a physical
hazard?
A. Bone piece
B. Buttons
C. Nails/screws/bolts/nuts
D. Above all
24. Which of the
following represents a sound time-management technique?
A. Scheduling interviews
simultaneously at two different facilities
B. Constantly revising
the audit schedule to accommodate follow-up questions
C. Anticipating needs
and making them known to the auditee in advance
D. Determining the
detailed audit schedule at the audit opening meeting
25. How to prevent
cross-contact with allergens in food production?
A. Cleaning and
sanitizing surfaces
B. Using separate
equipment for allergen-containing foods
C. Implementing allergen
management procedures
D. All of the above
26. What is the first
step in implementing a HACCP plan?
A. Identifying potential
hazards
B. Establishing critical
control points
C. Conducting a hazard
analysis
D. Developing a
monitoring system
27. What is the critical
limit for a critical control point?
A. The maximum amount of
a hazard that can be present in a food product
B. The minimum amount of
a hazard that can be present in a food product
C. The point at which a
hazard must be controlled
D. The point at which a
hazard must be eliminated
28. What are the main
symptoms of a food allergy?
A. Hives, itching, and
swelling
B. Nausea, vomiting, and
diarrhea
C. Headache, fever, and
fatigue
D. All of the above
29. An internal audit
schedule should be prioritized on the basis of all of the following criteria except
the?
A. Cost of the
activities
B. Risk of the
activities
C. Size of
the auditee’s department
D. Management’s requests
30. What are the benefits
of implementing a HACCP plan?
A. Improved food safety,
reduced food recalls, and increased consumer confidence
B. Increased food
production efficiency, reduced costs, and improved food quality
C. Increased sales,
improved customer satisfaction, and reduced competition
D. Improved sanitation,
reduced food waste, and increased employee morale
31. What is the final
step in the HACCP process?
A. Verification
B. Validation
C. Implementation
D. Documentation
32. What are the benefits
of allergen management in food safety?
A. Reduced risk of
allergen-related incidents and improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased food
production efficiency, reduced costs, and improved food quality
C. Increased sales,
improved customer satisfaction, and reduced competition
D. Improved sanitation,
reduced food waste, and increased employee morale
33. What is the main
reason for food poisoning?
E. Bacteria
F. Viruses
G. Fungi
H. Parasites
34. How to provide
accurate allergen information to consumers?
A. Proper labeling of
allergen-containing ingredients
B. Implementing allergen
management procedures
C. Providing allergen
information on request
D. All of the above
35. During the closing
meeting, the lead auditor should do which of the following?
A. Accept the
presentation of objective evidence.
B. Review the auditor’s
qualifications.
C. Perform a causal
analysis with the auditee.
D. Present a summary of
audit results.
36. What is the role of
management in allergen management?
A. To establish policies
and objectives
B. To provide resources
and support
C. To delegate
responsibilities and authority
D. All of the above
37. What are the major
types of food poisoning bacteria?
A. Staphylococcus,
Streptococcus, and Pseudomonas
B. Clostridium,
Botulinum, and Bacillus
C. Salmonella, Listeria,
and E. coli
D. Aspergillus, Candida,
and Cryptococcus
38. What is the correct
way to thaw frozen food?
A. At room temperature
B. In the refrigerator
C. In the oven
D. In hot water
39. What is the main
reason for cross-contamination?
A. The spread of
bacteria from one food to another
B. The spread of viruses
from one food to another
C. The spread of fungi
from one food to another
D. The spread of
parasites from one food to another
40. What are the main
types of food allergens?
A. Peanuts, tree nuts,
fish, shellfish, milk, egg, wheat, soy, and sesame
B. Gluten, sugar, salt,
and colorings
C. Lactose, fructose,
and artificial sweeteners
D. None of the above
41. What is the objective
of management review in a food safety management system?
A. To evaluate the
performance of the management system
B. To identify areas for
improvement
C. To ensure compliance
with relevant regulations and standards
D. All of the above
42. What are the 7
principles of HACCP?
A. Hazard analysis,
critical control points, monitoring, corrective actions, verification,
documentation, and training
B. Hazard analysis,
critical control points, critical limits, monitoring, corrective actions,
verification, and documentation
C. Hazard analysis,
critical control points, monitoring, corrective actions, validation,
verification, and documentation
D. Hazard analysis,
critical control points, critical limits, monitoring, corrective actions, validation,
and documentation
43. What are the main
symptoms of food poisoning?
A. Headache, fever, and
fatigue
B. Sneezing, coughing,
and runny nose
C. Nausea, vomiting, and
diarrhea
D. Sore throat,
hoarseness, and difficulty swallowing
44. What is the best way
to ensure that food is cooked safely?
A. Using a timer
B. Using a visual
inspection
C. Using a food
thermometer
D. Using a pH meter
45. The fraction of
nonconforming products are plotted on which of the following types of control
charts?
A. u chart
B. np chart
C. p chart
D. c chart
HACCP – II
Practice Tests
Module Paper 4
Answer Key
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C
5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A
9. D 10. A 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. A 15. C 16. D
17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. C
25. D 26. C 27. A 28. D
29. C 30. A 31. D 32. A
33. A 34. D 35. D 36. D
37. C 38. B 39. A 40. A
41. D 42. B 43. C 44. C
45. C
Here is
another practice test aimed at HACCP practitioners who are intended to keep
updating their qualifications as the HACCP II exam every couple of years time
as to their roles in the company and regulatory requirements of the
jurisdiction. The answers are given at the end of the paper, but try not to
look at them first and try to complete them beforehand. Enjoy the paper.
Answer all the questions
Time: 01 hour
Module Paper 4
Answer Key
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. C
5. B 6. D 7. D 8. A
9. D 10. A 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. A 15. C 16. D
17. A 18. D 19. B 20. C
21. C 22. B 23. D 24. C
25. D 26. C 27. A 28. D
29. C 30. A 31. D 32. A
33. A 34. D 35. D 36. D
37. C 38. B 39. A 40. A
41. D 42. B 43. C 44. C
45. C